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September 22, 2008, 11:55 |
In OpenFOAM-1.4.1 the reynolds
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#1 |
Member
Matthias Kern
Join Date: Mar 2009
Location: Karlsruhe, Germany
Posts: 36
Rep Power: 17 |
In OpenFOAM-1.4.1 the reynolds stress tensor in the kEpsilon model has been calculated using
(2.0/3.0)*I)*k_ -(nut_)*2*dev(symm(fvc::grad(U_))) which seems plausible to me. Why is it in the RNGkEpsilon ((2.0/3.0)*I)*k_ - nut_*2*symm(fvc::grad(U_)) Where is here the deviatoric part? Isn't that wrong? Shouldn't it be ((2.0/3.0)*I)*k_ - nut_*2*dev(symm(fvc::grad(U_))) Also for the divR term it is calculated using - fvm::laplacian(nuEff(), U) - fvc::div(nuEff()*dev2(fvc::grad(U)().T()) Shouldn't it be dev2? Greetings, Matthias |
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September 22, 2008, 13:11 |
Matthias,
it seems you're l
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#2 |
Member
Patrick Bourdin
Join Date: Mar 2009
Posts: 40
Rep Power: 17 |
Matthias,
it seems you're looking at the incompressible models here, for which dev(symm(fvc::grad(U_))) = symm(fvc::grad(U_)) since tr(symm(fvc::grad(U_))) = div(U) = 0 Patrick |
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September 22, 2008, 15:02 |
yep I was too small minded and
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#3 |
Member
Matthias Kern
Join Date: Mar 2009
Location: Karlsruhe, Germany
Posts: 36
Rep Power: 17 |
yep I was too small minded and didn't catch that point.
Nevertheless, no I can put my mind at rest and perhaps others too. Patrick, thank's a lot for your quick reply. Matthias |
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