[siw]

Hi,

I guess it's possible to express the RANS equations in integral form. I've just taken a look through the book by Tannehill, Anderson and Pletcher and saw the derivation from NS equations to RANS equations using the PDE form with the time and favre averaging. Since many codes such as CFX use the integral form I was curious about this.

So can the integral RANS be obtained from the integral NS or must the integral RANS be obtained from the PDE RANS? Which is why the PDE are given in the textbooks even though most codes use the integral forms.

Regards